Divorce in Florida. Child moves to Wisconsin. No modification in years, although non-custodial parent (who never sees the child) income has gone up substantially. Must mother make motion in Florida, or can she move to modify support in Wisconsin. Please, no guesses.
I’m talking about the laws which existed before the "no-fault" divorce laws came in.
I wasn’t around at the time, but whenever I read or hear about them, they seem pretty sensible.
What was so wrong with them that they needed changing?
I want to move a dormant/closed (meaning all issues of requested relief have either been granted or otherwise adjudicated and no unheard motions are pending ) divorce case from one state (as it has "permanant jurisdiction") to Florida. I looked thru Florida Rules of Civil Proceedure and I believe this action is called Domestication as I am now a resident of FL (the term/action has nothing to do with me, but it refers to the treatment and movement of a dormant case from a court that has permanant jurisdiction to a new state, FL) . I’m Pro Se and I just can’t find the mechanics of doing this (wording, filing, etc). My former wife will object vehemently which will result in a hearing, but I can’t afford to go to that other state (money and time from work- it wouldn’t be just one trip and one day, but several) to fool with that as I know I have rights as a resident of FL. Please advise- this is for the happiness of my liitle girl.
I’ve always wondered why, if you gotten an annulment, your husband is your ex, like when you get divorced. If the marriage wasn’t consummated and was a farce, a la Kenny Chesney and Renee Zellweger, why are you considered exes? Anyone in law like family/divorce law can clarify it for me, please?
A judge signed a court Order based on what he thought was an agreement of the parties with regards to equitable distribution. Thus far, I have refused to accept this settlement ? When is the judge’s Order no longer valid ?
Have not seen or heard or know the where abbouts of my spouse since 1993.
